Question Nr. 25

Pla­to, in Phile­bus, 17c., has a dia­log in which Socrates explains that like lan­guage, music has gram­mar [music the­o­ry], “but you would not be a real musi­cian if this was all that you knew.”

Why then is Amer­i­can music edu­ca­tion based large­ly on gram­mar and not on music itself?

[I once wrote the edi­tor of the MENC Jour­nal ask­ing them what the “M” in their title stood for?]